Re: [Users] Is this even possible?

From: by way of Oleksandr Darchuk (o.darchuk_at_wucb.lviv.net)
Date: Thu Oct 03 2002 - 07:45:44 CEST


On Wednesday 02 October 2002 19:44, you wrote:
> Let's say I have the following Freeswan setup
>
>
> 3 networks A,B,C
>
>
> A 192.168.1.0----------B 10.0.2.0---------- C 172.31.1.0
>
> B has a tunnel to both A and C but A and C are not directly connected.
>
> Is there a way I can route traffic from A to C without setting up a
> seperate tunnel between the two. Meaning route traffic from A to C
> through B?
>
> Does that make sense?

I'm not sure that I use eseaest way, couse I'm newbie in FreeSWAN but I fixed
situation like yours in this way:
        tunnel from A to B have a rightsybnet (on A gateway) = 0.0.0.0/0
        tunnel from C to B (on C gate) have a rightsubnet= 0.0.0.0/0
After that you will be able to go from A to B and to C via B. If don't want
to go from A to B, just want to go through B on C you make another tunnels:
        tunnel from A to B have a rightsybnet (on A gateway) = 172.31.1.0 (C
network)
        tunnel from C to B (on C gate) have a rightsubnet= 192.168.1.0 (A network)
In this case you can't go on B network but will be able to go to C netwrok
(thru B).
Of course, I mean that you may have a one FreeSWAN B gate in B network to
connectting to A and C. In other cases you must have routing inside B network
betwwen both gateways.
Play with it, I hope it helps. I find thar playing with rightsubnet and
leftsubnet is vary strong mechanism to route networks.
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